Bible and being gay
I know there are a few verses, such as this:
This seems like explicit condemnation of the it, but how clear is it? This is something I've been considering for some time, and can't come to any solid conclusions. I've read suggestions that Ruth and Naomi, David and Johnathan were gay. Jesus says nothing on the subject. Why accept a verse such as that as literal, and one such as this:Romans 1:26-27 said:26 Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. 27 In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.
s anything but literal?1 Corinthians 4:34-35 said:
As in all the congregations of the saints, 34women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says. 35If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church.